If I had to guess, I'd say they're trying to point out that, yes, technology-powered late-stage capitalism may well share some features with pre-capitalist modes of production but this does not equate to a full return to a feudalist mode, and that processes already inherent to capitalism itself-- such as capital concentration and centralization driven by the tendency of the rate of profit to fall-- are still very relevant. It's hard to say because the whole distinction is pretty artificial.