We know that there are an infinite number of primes (Euclid's theorem). We don't yet know whether or not every possible sequence of data occurs in the digits of pi, but it's highly suspected (this would make pi a "normal number" if true).
Isn't a normal number ever so subtly different from that? In that not only does every possible sequence of data occur in the digits of a normal number, but each sequence occurs an infinite number of times with likelihood proportional to the number of digits.
Infinities always mix up my intuitions, though, so they might be equivalent.
True, it was one of those `gravity` moments or feelings about it perhaps -- You know it is there but still have not proven how it fully works, though my a physics aspect but I do like to think of them hand in hand. Perhaps another bias perceptional thought process, sorry my bad.
