> the category of irregular verbs in English will surely shrink over time
I just don't think that's true.
English, like all other languages, is in an unbroken line of continuous speech from the first group of humans to use speech at all. (Or if you don't follow the theory of a single origin of language, an origin set of language users.) Where you place the borders between what you call "English" or "Middle English" or "unnamed branch of Old High Saxon spoken by a particularly small group of villages" is fuzzy, but nobody ever decided "What I was speaking 10 minutes ago was Language A but starting now this is called Language B and they're totally different in every way".
So we've been developing English for a very long time. If "little used verbs become regularized over time, but new verbs formed [are] never formed as irregular verbs", then why do we have still have irregular verbs at all? Why wouldn't they have been wiped out thousands of years ago?
In the most obvious cases, English hasn't changed at a uniform rate. It's experienced gradual splits, mergings, conquerings, being alternatingly a vulgar and prestige dialect, immigration, emmigration, wars, trade explosions, and regular old influence of other languages nearby.
The claim you're quoting seems to be that if a language is left to its own devices that it will gradually approach regularity. I definitely disagree that point, and there are somewhat well-understood methods for these changes it occur even in an isolated language (for instance, vowel shifts that affect some words more than others, after which words that used to follow the same rule no longer do). But let's set that aside. Even if we ignore the normal linguistic processes that can increase irregularity in an isolated language, what makes us think that the "artificial" events like wars or interactions with other languages will decrease? Why would those things stop?
You make several false assumptions or gross misunderstandings of how language changes.
The reason irregular verbs originally existed is because English is a Germanic language, meaning, that a thousand years ago, what we now call irregular verbs were actually regular verbs. There was a logical ordering and well understood way to modify the stem of a verb in order to agree with the subject and tense. At the time, irregular verbs changed their stem, but in a predictable and universal manner.
This all changed with the conquest of the Norman French. After the slow introduction of French and Latin into English, the verb forms we are now familiar with entered the language. In time, all verbs of Germanic origin were used the same way they had been used in Old English, while verbs brought in by the French used the forms we are familiar with today.
The reason it makes sense to see language regularization is because we have grown to expect the French form of verb agreement rather than the Germanic one. The Germanic system is more complex.
In short, the reason that "new verbs formed [are] never formed as irregular verbs ..." makes sense, is that the change from irregular Germanic verbs to regular French verbs is only about 800 years old.
Sorry but this is totally wrong. The weak inflection in english with a dental suffix is an proto-germanic invention shared with all germanic languages.
The reason why there are so many weak verbs is that the rules for strong verbs complicated over time so that the rules weren't obvious anymore and that the verbs were seen just as
irregular (there is thought to have been just two verb classes originally in PIE http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_ablaut, but there are already 7 of them in the old germanic languages http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Germanic_strong_verb#Strong_ver...).
Therefore new verbs couldn't be integrated as strong verbs by analogy.
> You make several false assumptions or gross misunderstandings of how language changes.
That's a little over the top. I only made a few claims, none specific to English:
Claim #1: There a processes that create and remove irregularities in a language. Some of these can occur in isolation, some are interactions with other languages.
Claim #2: At the very least, the ones resulting from interaction will continue to occur in the future. That is, we still have wars and immigration.
Claim #3: Implicit to my argument is my opinion that the creations occur approximately at the rate of the removals.
Certainly #3 there is the hardest to justify (and I only offer "they aren't gone yet" as my evidence). A much easier and not too different claim is "we won't reach 100% regularity" and if you like you can pretend that I argued that instead as it's not too different a claim. But "gross misunderstanding" seems unfair.
So which of these is a gross misunderstanding of language changes?
Presumably, new irregular verbs used to appear, but no longer do. Groups of speakers are less isolated, we have a standardized written language, and demarcations between languages are clearer.
It's (supposedly) pronunciation changes that cause irregular words, right? You start with a regular rule, pronunciation of all words change so that the rule no longer works, all the uncommon words quickly regularize on a new rule, and what's left is irregular.
It's been a while since my last linguistics class, but that seems like the natural result of words retaining their pronunciation roughly according to how often they're used. That sounds like a continuous process we should expect to slow as pronunciation change slows (due to recorded media), but not necessarily to stop at some cut-off point.
> Presumably, new irregular verbs used to appear, but no longer do
Why not? Have now we invented all of the words we need, but hadn't yet invented "seen" or "got" in 1200 AD? Then why would it stop now, instead of in 1200 AD?
> we have a standardized written language
But we've had written language for much longer than English has been around
At one time, the "irregular" verbs were regular: English (or rather Proto-Germanic, the common ancestor language of English, German, Swedish, etc.) had two classes of regular verbs, strong and weak, and newly invented verbs could be added to either class. However, the strong class over time became somewhat obsolete and irregular, and is now relatively closed to adding new members (though not completely: sneak/snuck, dive/dove and shit/shat are relatively new additions -- certainly long post-dating the irregularization).
Written language has become more prominent, recorded language has been introduced, and more of us experience some formal instruction in what the rules are. Those seem all like reasons new words are more likely to conform to the rules.
>So we've been developing English for a very long time. If "little used verbs become regularized over time, but new verbs formed [are] never formed as irregular verbs", then why do we have still have irregular verbs at all? Why wouldn't they have been wiped out thousands of years ago?
we haven't been developing English for thousands of years. Who knows what will happen then! We'll be speaking in python no doubt.
The low frequency of use of many of the irregular verbs in English and their restriction to activities mostly not talked about at home ensures, as Pinker correctly points out, that they are not part of the "unbroken line of continuous speech" that you write about. My ancestors trace back through the paternal line to English speakers for as far back in history as you can go and still find speakers of English. And the last few generations of my family have included college-educated English majors who were very fussy about proper rules of English grammar. But none of that passed on to me in living speech the "correct" (irregular, or "strong") forms of some of the irregular verbs in English. The attested historical process, as Pinker correctly writes, is that the category of "strong" verbs in English and in other Germanic languages has shrunk over time.
For onlookers, I should list here the English irregular verbs. All of you will see for yourselves how rarely used some of them are, and how unlikely it is that a child would learn them from home conversation. Others, of course, the ones we all know, are the ones Pinker thinks will last indefinitely. The ones with alternate forms shown are likely to become regular sooner, I think.
Instead of posting a lengthy and yet incomplete list, perhaps next time you could oblige us with a shorter list of examples, a hyperlink to the full list, or both.
I just don't think that's true.
English, like all other languages, is in an unbroken line of continuous speech from the first group of humans to use speech at all. (Or if you don't follow the theory of a single origin of language, an origin set of language users.) Where you place the borders between what you call "English" or "Middle English" or "unnamed branch of Old High Saxon spoken by a particularly small group of villages" is fuzzy, but nobody ever decided "What I was speaking 10 minutes ago was Language A but starting now this is called Language B and they're totally different in every way".
So we've been developing English for a very long time. If "little used verbs become regularized over time, but new verbs formed [are] never formed as irregular verbs", then why do we have still have irregular verbs at all? Why wouldn't they have been wiped out thousands of years ago?
In the most obvious cases, English hasn't changed at a uniform rate. It's experienced gradual splits, mergings, conquerings, being alternatingly a vulgar and prestige dialect, immigration, emmigration, wars, trade explosions, and regular old influence of other languages nearby.
The claim you're quoting seems to be that if a language is left to its own devices that it will gradually approach regularity. I definitely disagree that point, and there are somewhat well-understood methods for these changes it occur even in an isolated language (for instance, vowel shifts that affect some words more than others, after which words that used to follow the same rule no longer do). But let's set that aside. Even if we ignore the normal linguistic processes that can increase irregularity in an isolated language, what makes us think that the "artificial" events like wars or interactions with other languages will decrease? Why would those things stop?